Tiemoue Bakayoko’s agent has finally broken the silence concerning his client future at Chelsea.
The French midfielder joined Chelsea under Antonio Conte from AS Monaco for a fee reported to be around £40million in 2017.
However, the 26-year-old play time at Chelsea was shortlived as he only managed to get just one full season of disappointing first team football at the club.
Bakayoko has, since then, gone out on multiple loans while at Chelsea.
The midfielder is currently on loan at Napoli and is enjoying a pretty good loan spell at the Serie A side.
His brother Abdoulaye, who also works as his agent, has now revealed that the midfielder is enjoying his time at Napoli and would love to make the deal permanent.
In his words he said, “It’s too early to talk about that (a permanent move), there are many things that must be considered.
“He is on loan until the end of the season and he hasn’t talked to the club yet, but staying at Napoli would be a nice opportunity, we’ll see.
He continued saying, “He has played for many clubs, but he is happy at Napoli, the results are there and this club would be an ideal option for the future.
“Napoli are Scudetto contenders, a positive ending is in everyone’s interest. Napoli will be his priority in June.” He concluded.
Bakayoko’s contract at Chelsea expires in 2022. The Blues will be looking to cash in on the Frenchman before his contract runs out.